The conclusion does not follow from the premises, as evidenced by my counterexample. It could be the case that every finite string of digits appears in the decimal expansion of pi, but if that’s the case, a proof would have to involve more properties than an infinite non-repeating decimal expansion. I would like to see your proof that every finite string of digits appears in the decimal expansion of pi.
Well that’s just being pointlessly pedantic, obviously they fucking know that a repeating number of all zeros and ones doesn’t have a two in it. This is pure reddit pedantry you’re doing
Are you trying to say the answer to their question is no? Because if so, you’re wrong, and if not I’m not sure what you’re trying to say.
The conclusion does not follow from the premises, as evidenced by my counterexample. It could be the case that every finite string of digits appears in the decimal expansion of pi, but if that’s the case, a proof would have to involve more properties than an infinite non-repeating decimal expansion. I would like to see your proof that every finite string of digits appears in the decimal expansion of pi.
Well that’s just being pointlessly pedantic, obviously they fucking know that a repeating number of all zeros and ones doesn’t have a two in it. This is pure reddit pedantry you’re doing
You might want to stay away from higher maths and all discussions around it, like this one.
You might want to play in traffic
It’s a math proof. Chill.
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